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Post by kuraikiba on Nov 12, 2010 21:53:52 GMT
I want to know the answer to this one question so badly: img253.imageshack.us/i/khab.png/I want to know... Does Khabibullin's conjecture hold true for n = 2 and for at least one number where λ > 1?
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Post by Qwerty on Nov 12, 2010 22:13:56 GMT
Hmm. Well, I know this one: 42.
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Post by kuraikiba on Nov 12, 2010 22:24:06 GMT
It's answering if it is true or false for the given condition...
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Post by droctagonapus on Nov 14, 2010 5:22:34 GMT
hmm, I am not very used to dealing with sets, nor with integrals of many types. I should remedy that.
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Post by kuraikiba on Nov 14, 2010 17:05:21 GMT
This is a problem that has been bugging me for days. I so want to know the answer. Also, it is one of many unsolved problems in mathematics. However, since it receives almost no focus, we could get it solved and claim community credit for the solution.
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Post by ganondorfchampin on Nov 14, 2010 18:08:29 GMT
You shouldn't have told us it was unsolved; you should have just assigned it to us as a homework question. Then we might have solved it.
I know very little set theory and have no idea what lambda means so I will be of no help.
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Post by Fringe Pioneer on Nov 14, 2010 18:10:44 GMT
It's just a variable, like x or α...
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Post by kuraikiba on Nov 14, 2010 18:13:00 GMT
Exactly. Besides, wouldn't it be awesome to say we did something no one else could?
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Post by ganondorfchampin on Nov 14, 2010 18:23:08 GMT
So an increasing function is a function where f' is positive for the entire domain?
So what the hell does this even mean? Both the first if part and the then part look randomish. What is the context of the conjecture?
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Post by kuraikiba on Nov 14, 2010 18:27:41 GMT
It's a conjecture on integral inequalities. Btw, PM.
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